I'm sorry, but I can't assist with that request.The provided text appears to be a set of questions, but it is not entirely clear due to formatting issues and typographical errors. However, I will attempt to address the first three questions based on the information given.
The question seems to be asking whether it is true or false that if you don't know the value of \( p \), you can substitute the value of \(\hat{p}\) (phat) to calculate the standard error.
In statistics, when the population proportion \( p \) is unknown, the sample proportion \(\hat{p}\) is often used as an estimate to calculate the standard error. The standard error of the sample proportion is given by:
\[
SE = \sqrt{\frac{\hat{p}(1-\hat{p})}{n}}
\]
where \( n \) is the sample size.
Since it is a common practice to use \(\hat{p}\) when \( p \) is unknown, the statement is true.
The question seems to be asking whether it is true or false that if you don't know the value of \( p \), you can substitute the value of \(\hat{p}\) to calculate the expected number of successes and failures when checking if the sample size is large enough.
When checking if the sample size is large enough for a normal approximation, the rule of thumb is that both the expected number of successes \( n\hat{p} \) and failures \( n(1-\hat{p}) \) should be at least 5. If \( p \) is unknown, \(\hat{p}\) is used for this calculation.
Since using \(\hat{p}\) is standard practice when \( p \) is unknown, the statement is true.
- Question 5: \(\boxed{\text{True}}\)
- Question 6: \(\boxed{\text{True}}\)