Transcript text: Multiple Choice Question
Why do you have to use the dividend at time $n+1$ to compute the terminal price in the two-stage growth valuation model?
O You don't. The dividend used to compute the terminal price should be the time $n$ dividend.
O The terminal price is the time $n$ price. The dividend used to compute a price must always be one time period ahead of the price.
O The terminal price is the time $n+1$ price. Thus, the dividend must be the time $n+1$ price.