For a single child, the probability of having a boy (ppp) is 0.50.50.5 and the probability of having a girl (qqq) is also 0.50.50.5. The results of the Bernoulli distribution analysis are as follows:
Probability of success (having a boy): P(X=1)=p=0.5 P(X = 1) = p = 0.5 P(X=1)=p=0.5
Probability of failure (having a girl): P(X=0)=1−p=0.5 P(X = 0) = 1 - p = 0.5 P(X=0)=1−p=0.5
Mean (μ\muμ): μ=1⋅p+0⋅(1−p)=p=0.5 \mu = 1 \cdot p + 0 \cdot (1 - p) = p = 0.5 μ=1⋅p+0⋅(1−p)=p=0.5
Variance (σ2\sigma^2σ2): σ2=p⋅(1−p)=0.25 \sigma^2 = p \cdot (1 - p) = 0.25 σ2=p⋅(1−p)=0.25
Standard Deviation (σ\sigmaσ): σ=pq=0.5 \sigma = \sqrt{pq} = 0.5 σ=pq=0.5
To find the probability that the couple has all boys when they have three children, we use the binomial distribution formula: P(X=x)=(nx)⋅px⋅qn−x P(X = x) = \binom{n}{x} \cdot p^x \cdot q^{n-x} P(X=x)=(xn)⋅px⋅qn−x where n=3n = 3n=3 (number of children), x=3x = 3x=3 (number of boys), p=0.5p = 0.5p=0.5, and q=0.5q = 0.5q=0.5.
Calculating this gives: P(X=3)=(33)⋅(0.5)3⋅(0.5)0=1⋅0.125⋅1=0.125 P(X = 3) = \binom{3}{3} \cdot (0.5)^3 \cdot (0.5)^{0} = 1 \cdot 0.125 \cdot 1 = 0.125 P(X=3)=(33)⋅(0.5)3⋅(0.5)0=1⋅0.125⋅1=0.125
To find the probability of having at least one girl, we can use the complement rule: P(at least one girl)=1−P(all boys) P(\text{at least one girl}) = 1 - P(\text{all boys}) P(at least one girl)=1−P(all boys) From the previous calculation, we have: P(all boys)=0.125 P(\text{all boys}) = 0.125 P(all boys)=0.125 Thus, P(at least one girl)=1−0.125=0.875 P(\text{at least one girl}) = 1 - 0.125 = 0.875 P(at least one girl)=1−0.125=0.875
The answers to the questions are:
0.125(all boys) \boxed{0.125} \quad \text{(all boys)} 0.125(all boys) 0.875(at least one girl) \boxed{0.875} \quad \text{(at least one girl)} 0.875(at least one girl)
Oops, Image-based questions are not yet availableUse Solvely.ai for full features.
Failed. You've reached the daily limit for free usage.Please come back tomorrow or visit Solvely.ai for additional homework help.